English Translation
Most people think I’m crazy.
Why is there a tilde over the “i” in mayoría? It’s already the next-to-last syllable. This happens with er/ir conditional and all verbs in subjunctive… ?
It’s precisely the accent (tilde) that indicates that i and a are in separate syllables. Contrast that to zanahoria, in which ia is a diphthong.
The same goes for sería (conditional) vs. seria (adjective), etc.
It might look like that, but the accents have nothing to do with the grammar; they only signal where the stress pattern deviates from the default rule.
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